alt.politics.economics

jmh wrote:
> On Mon, 08 Oct 2007 20:33:30 -0500, Mark M. announced to all in
>
>
>>jmh wrote:
>>
>>>On Sun, 07 Oct 2007 18:46:01 -0700, forbisgaryg@ announced to all in
>>>
>>
>>(...)
>>
>> In order to
>>
>>>>answer this question one would have to ask if one ever obtains
>>>>ownership of that which is not the product of labor by mixing
>>>>labor with it.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>And the answer to that for everyone in this thread has been:
>>>"Yes."
>>
>>You can obtain rightful ownership by making something new: modifying natural
>>resources into a man-made good. An example is digging iron ore and reducing it to
>>iron. You cannot rightfully obtain perpetual ownership of a particular plot of
>>land by scratching around on top of it or digging a hole in it.
>
>
> And yet both the scratching on top and digging the hole
> both qualify as a conversion of natural into man-made
> goods.

Scratching or digging at a particular location cannot make that location itself a
man-made good.

Mark M.